Daily Current Affairs-Prelims

 

Daily Prelims Test - 31_October_2021

Posted by R&D, KingMakers IAS Academy on Nov 1, 2021 12:39:52 PM

 

1. Consider the following statements:

 

1) The snow leopard is listed as globally endangered on the IUCN Red List and the species is listed on Appendix I of CITES.

2) Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program is an intergovernmental alliance that was established to promote the conservation of snow leopards and their mountain ecosystems.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: (b) 2 only

 

Explanation:

 

In NEWS: Zoonotic pathogens threaten humans, snow leopards in High Asia: Policy brief

 

●    The remote mountains of inner Asia could witness future pandemics which could threaten both humans as well as non-human species such as snow leopards

●    Globalisation — including unprecedented levels of movement of people and goods between high mountains and low-lying regions — climate warming, environmental degradation and wildlife trade were conspiring to significantly intensify the risk of disease outbreaks in Asia’s great mountains

●    GSLEP is an inter-governmental alliance that was established to promote the conservation of snow leopards and their mountain ecosystems in 2013. Hence statement (2) is correct.

 

Snow leopard:

 

●    The snow leopard inhabits parts of 12 countries: Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russian Federation, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.

●    It is found in the Mongolian and Gobi Altai and the Khangai Mountains.

●    The snow leopard is listed as globally Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and the species is listed (as Uncia uncia) on Appendix I of CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Fauna and Flora), which prohibits international trade in the animal and its parts and products except under exceptional, non-commercial circumstances. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.

●    The estimated size of the snow leopard’s distributional range is about 1.8 million km2, with the largest share in the Tibetan plateau of China, followed by Mongolia and India.

●    Snow leopards are high-altitude rock specialists, although in Russia they can live at elevation 540-800 m above sea level. They have been recorded in high rocky areas, alpine meadows, alpine steppe shrub, and high altitude forests. They generally live above the tree line at elevations of 2,700-5,000 m.

 

GSLEP Program:

 

●    The Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP) seeks to address high-mountain development issues using the conservation of the charismatic and endangered snow leopard as a flagship.

●    This iconic and culturally treasured great cat is a good indicator species as it quickly reacts to habitat disturbance and its successful conservation requires sustainable long term systemic solutions to the threats impacting the quality of habitats.

The GSLEP is a range-wide effort that unites range country governments, non governmental and intergovernmental organizations, local communities, and the private sector around a shared vision to conserve snow leopards and their valuable high-mountain ecosystems.

 

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/zoonotic-pathogens-threaten-humans-snow-leopards-in-high-asia-policy-brief-79947

 

2. Consider the following statements:

 

1) Chromosomes are thread-like structures present in the DNA.

2) Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosome.

3) Autosomal DNA is a term used in genetic genealogy to describe DNA which is inherited from the autosomal chromosomes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c)  1 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

 

In NEWS: ‘Autosomal DNA’ used to confirm living descendant of Sitting Bull

 

●    Unique identification technique not used till now is based on non-gender-specific DNA

●    A technique based on ‘autosomal DNA’ has been used for the first time to identify the great-grandson and closest living relative of Sitting Bull, a prominent 19th century Native American leader.

●    The technique searches for ‘autosomal DNA’ in the genetic fragments extracted from a body sample

●    The technique could also be used to answer important questions based on old human DNA that might previously have been considered too degraded to analyse. Hence statement (3) is correct.

 

Chromosomes:

 

●    Chromosomes are thread-like structures present in the nucleus. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.

●    These are nothing but DNA tightly coiled around a protein called histone.

●    Chromosomes exist in pairs. Human cells contain 23 such pairs or 46 chromosomes. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●    Each chromosome is composed of one super-long DNA molecule.

●    Notice how the DNA is coiled around histone and then many such histones are packed together to form a chromosome.

 

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/science-technology/-autosomal-dna-used-to-confirm-living-descendant-of-sitting-bull-79945

3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Samudrayaan?

 

a)  It is an air-to-surface missile which is the first indigenous anti-radiation missile of the country

b) It is the India’s first manned ocean mission

c)  It is a naval exercise between the India and UK

d) It is a Secretary-level mechanism on border management and security related matters.

 

Answer: (b) It is the India’s first manned ocean mission

 

Explanation:

 

In NEWS: India launches its first manned ocean mission. All you need to know. Hence option (b) is correct.

●    The Samudrayaan project, undertaken by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), will be a part of the ₹6,000 crore Deep Ocean Mission.

●    The Matsya 6000, the deep-sea vehicle under the Samudrayan initiative, is designed to carry three people in a titanium alloy personnel sphere of 2.1-metre diameter enclosed space.

●    It will have an endurance of 12 hours and an additional 96 hours in case of an emergency situation.

●    It could work at a depth between 1000 and 5500 meters

●    The niche technology facilitates carrying out deep ocean exploration of non-living resources such as polymetallic manganese nodules, gas hydrates, hydro-thermal sulphides and cobalt crusts.

●    According to a NIOT official, Matsya 6000 will be ready for qualification trials by December 2024. The official also said that the shallow water (500 metres) phase is expected to happen by the end of 2022 or 2023 and will be followed by deeper initiatives.

●    NIOT developed a 'personnel sphere' made of mild steel with local industry for an operational capability of 500 metres and tested for its usage as per the International Classification and Certification Agency for man-rated operation during this month sea trial using Ocean Research Vessel Sagar Nidhi in the Bay of Bengal.

●    The deep-sea vehicle shall be manoeuvred at deep-seafloor with six-degree freedom using a battery-powered propulsion system for 4 hours at 6000-metre depth, according to the release. "Basically this vehicle is a platform to carry any devices, sensors etc to deep-sea for doing experiments/observations in the presence of a human being,” the official said.

●    This programme will augment India's capability with infrastructure facilities such as a high thickness welding facility and deep ocean simulator.

●    The government has approved the Deep Ocean Mission to be implemented by the Union ministry of earth sciences at a total budget of 4,077 crore for 5 years.

Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-launches-its-first-manned-ocean-mission-all-you-need-to-know-101635649948300.html

 

4. With respect to Gini coefficient, consider the following statements:

 

1) It is often used as a gauge of economic inequality, measuring income distribution or, less commonly, wealth distribution among a population.

2) A higher Gini index indicates greater inequality, with high-income individuals receiving much larger percentages of the total income of the population.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

 

Explanation:

 

In NEWS: Is the economic recovery V, K or W shaped?

 

●    Economists are busy describing the shape of the post-pandemic recovery. While a ‘V-shaped’ recovery suggests a quick return to growth, a recent ‘Investopedia Economy’ article pointed that the Covid recovery in the US has been fractured and uneven — a ‘K-shaped’ one where different areas of the economy recover at varying speeds.

●    Although SARS in 2003, H1N1 in 2009, MERS in 2012, Ebola in 2014, and Zika in 2016 were much smaller in scale than the ongoing pandemic, they led to increases in the Gini coefficient, raised the income share of higher-income deciles, and lowered the employment-to-population ratio for those with basic education compared to those with higher education by more than 5 per cent in the medium term.

 

The Gini index:

 

●    The Gini index, or Gini coefficient, is a measure of the distribution of income across a population developed by the Italian statistician Corrado Gini in 1912.

●    It is often used as a gauge of economic inequality, measuring income distribution or, less commonly, wealth distribution among a population. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●    The coefficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and 1 representing perfect inequality.

●    Values over 1 are theoretically possible due to negative income or wealth.

●    A higher Gini index indicates greater inequality, with high-income individuals receiving much larger percentages of the total income of the population. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●    Global inequality as measured by the Gini index increased over the 19th and 20th centuries, but has declined in more recent years.

 

Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/is-the-economic-recovery-v-k-or-w-shaped/article37238131.ece?homepage=true

 

5. Consider the following statements:

 

1) In India, Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

2) As per the Election Commission, any party seeking registration has to apply to the Commission within 30 days following the date of its formation.

3) As per existing guidelines, the applicant is to publish a proposed party name in two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

a)  1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c)  3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

 

In NEWS: Explained: How political parties are registered in India

 

●    Former Punjab chief minister Captain Amarinder Singh announced he will be forming his own political party in Punjab ahead of the state assembly elections. He said his party’s name and symbol will be announced only after the nod from the Election Commission.

 

Registering a political party

 

●    According to the Election Commission, any party seeking registration has to submit an application to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation. Hence statement (2) is correct.

●    As per guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

●    The registration of all political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●    As per existing guidelines, the applicant is asked to publish a proposed party name in two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers. Hence statement (3) is correct.

●    The notice for publication is also displayed on the website of the Election Commission.

●        An application for registration is to be submitted to the Secretary, Election Commission of India, in the performance prescribed by the Commission

 

Recognition as a National Party:

 

For any political party to be eligible for recognition as a National Party, it has to satisfy any of the three conditions listed below:

●        Secure at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok Sabha General Election in any four or more states and win at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election from any State or State.

●        Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats in a Lok Sabha General Election and these seats have to be won from at least 3 states.

●        The party is recognized as a State Party in at least four states.

 

Recognition as a State Party:

 

For any political party to be eligible for recognition as a State Party in a state, it has to satisfy any of the five conditions listed below:

●        Secure at least 6% of the valid vote & win at least 2 seats in an Assembly General Election.

●        Secure at least 6% of the valid vote & win at least 1 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election.

●        Win at least 3% of the seats or at least 3 seats, whichever is more, in an Assembly General Election.

●        Win at least 1 out of every 25 seats from a state in a Lok Sabha General Election.

●        Secure at least 8% of the total valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok Sabha General Election.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/how-political-parties-are-registered-in-india-7595772/

 

6. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission:

 

1) It is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

2) It is created to set standards of all drugs that are manufactured, sold and consumed in India.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

 

Explanation:

 

In NEWS: Union Health Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya launches the Sixth Edition of National Formulary of India

 

●    The Union Minister for Health and Family launched the Sixth Edition of National Formulary of India (NFI). NFI has been published by Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) to promote rational use of medicines in the country.

●    It is important to know about the content, impact and side effects of medicines.

●    The NFI is published to promote rational use of medicines in the country. It will be very beneficial for Clinicians and Healthcare professionals while prescribing the medicines to the patients.

 

National Formulary of India:

 

●        Formulary is a manual containing clinically oriented summaries of pharmacological information about selected drugs.

●        The manual may also include administrative and regulatory information pertaining to the prescribing and dispensing of drugs.

●        A national formulary generally concentrates on available and affordable medicines that are relevant to the treatment of diseases in a particular country.

●        The first, second and third editions of National Formulary of India (NFI) were published in 1960, 1966 and 1979 respectively by the Ministry of Health, Government of India.

 

Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission:

 

●    Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) is an Autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●        The IPC was formed according to the Indian Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 and established by executive orders of the Government of India in 1956.

●    IPC is created to set standards of all drugs that are manufactured, sold and consumed in India. Hence statement (2) is correct.

Functions:

●        To update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region.

●        Publish official documents for improving quality of medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian pharmacopoeia (IP).

●        Promote rational use of generic medicines by publishing national formulary of India.

●        Prescribe standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from health care perspective of human beings and animals.

●        Provide IP reference substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1767300

 

7. Consider the following statements regarding SWAMIH fund:

 

1) It aims to provide financing to enable completion of stalled housing projects and ensure delivery of apartments to homebuyers.

2) The Sponsor of the Fund is the Asian Development Bank.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: (a) 1 only

 

Explanation:

 

In NEWS: Explained: SWAMIH Fund exit from investment in Mumbai’s housing project and its impact

 

●    According to the Finance Ministry, SWAMIH has given final approval to 95 projects sanctioning more than Rs 9,500 crores which will complete over 57,700 homes.

●    The government-backed Special Window for Affordable & Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Fund has announced complete exit from its investment made in CCI Rivali Park Wintergreen project in Mumbai. The fund was set up last year to provide last mile funding to stuck affordable housing projects.

●    It has already completed over 1,500 homes in seven projects and is on track to complete at least 10,000 homes every year, the government said on Thursday.

●    The Fund was announced under a government scheme to support stuck projects. Managed by SBICap Ventures, it gave possession of completed flats to homeowners in the Rivali Park project in May. Spread over seven acres and consisting of 708 units of various configurations, the project is developed by CCI Projects Pvt Ltd.

 

SWAMIH Fund:

 

●    Due to the Funds crunch, many real estate projects across the country were stalled. The Government of India to help complete over 1,500 stalled housing projects comprising 4.58 lakh housing units, announced a Rs 25,000 crore SWAMIH fund, in November 2019.

●    SWAMIH Investment Fund is a government backed fund that was set up as a Category-II AIF (Alternate Investment Fund) debt fund registered with Securities And Exchange Board Of India – SEBI.

●    SWAMIH fund was formed to complete construction of stalled, RERA-registered affordable and mid-income category housing projects which are stuck due to paucity of funds. Read in detail about the Real Estate Act 2016 on the given link. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●    The Sponsor of the Fund is the Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, on behalf of the Government of India. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.

●    The Investment Manager of the Fund is SBICAP Ventures, a wholly-owned subsidiary of SBI Capital Markets, which in turn is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the State Bank of India.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/swamih-fund-exit-mumbai-housing-explained-7595767/

 

 

8. Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

 

1) The CAG is appointed by the President of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.

2) CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, Consolidated Fund of each state and Union Territory.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: (a) 1 only

 

Explanation:

 

In NEWS: CAG, Auditor General of Maldives ink MoU to strengthen public finance audit

 

●    The Comptroller and Auditor General of India and Auditor General of Maldives have signed a memorandum of understanding to strengthen the audit process of public finance.

●    The MoU was signed by Girish Chandra Murmu, CAG of India and Hussain Niyazy, Auditor General of Maldives in Male

●    CAG of India and Auditor General of Maldives have decided to develop and strengthen respective institution's professional capacity and improve methodologies in the field of audit of public finance

 

Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

 

●    Article 148 of the Constitution of India establishes the authority of this office

●    The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President of India and can be removed from office only in the manner and on the grounds that a Judge of the Supreme Court is removed. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●    The person appointed to this office should take an oath of office before the President or any other person appointed by the office of the President.

●    The salary, service conditions, leaves of absence, pension, and age of retirement are determined by the Parliament of India and specified in the Second Schedule such that the service conditions and salary will not be modified to the disadvantage of the incumbent during their tenure.

●    The CAG is not eligible for any further office after the end of their tenure either in the Government of India or any State Government.

●    The powers and functions of the CAG are subject to the provisions of the Indian Constitution and any Acts of Parliament, along with the service conditions for the Indian Audits and Accounts Department. The rules governing these would be prescribed by the President in consultation with the incumbent.

●    The expenses on the administration of this office including all allowances, salaries and pensions would be charged to the Consolidated Fund of India.

●    The incumbent is appointed for a period of 6 years or until attaining the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.

●    CAG audits the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or State revenues; government companies; other corporations and bodies, when so required by related laws. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.

●    He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty and his certificate is final on the matter.

Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/cag-auditor-general-of-maldives-ink-mou-to-strengthen-public-finance-audit/articleshow/87260903.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

 

9. Consider the following statements regarding World Gold Council:

 

1) It helps to support its members to mine in a responsible way and developed the Conflict Free Gold Standard.

2) It is based in the UK.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

a)  1 only

b) 2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

 

Explanation:

 

In NEWS: India's gold consumption could jump to 600 tonnes in 2021: World Gold Council

 

Gold consumption in India could jump to close to 600 tonnes in 2021, according to the World Gold Council (WGC), boosted by strong demand in the fourth quarter

 

World Gold Council (WGC):

 

●    WGC is the market development organisation for the gold industry.

●    It supports the development of gold markets and helps investors understand how investments in gold can help them achieve their investment objectives.

●    It is based in the UK, with operations in India, China, Singapore and the US . Hence statement (2) is correct.

●    Its purpose is to stimulate and sustain demand for gold, provide industry leadership, and be the global authority on the gold market.

●    It works across all parts of the industry, from gold mining to investment, and their aim is to stimulate and sustain demand for gold.

●    The Council’s 33 Members are some of the world’s most forward-thinking gold mining companies.

●    It helps to support its members to mine in a responsible way and developed the Conflict Free Gold Standard. Hence statement (1) is correct.

●    TheWGC is governed by its Board of Directors, which meets four times per year and comprises representatives from its Members and its Chief Executive Officer.

●    Members are represented by either the Chair or the Chief Executive Officer of their respective companies.

 

Source:

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/cons-products/fashion-/-cosmetics-/-jewellery/indias-gold-consumption-could-jump-to-600-tonnes-in-2021-world-gold-council/articleshow/87340242.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

 

10. With reference to India, the terms 'Halbi, Ho and Kui' pertain to

 

a)  dance forms of Northwest India

b) musical instruments

c)  prehistoric cave paintings

d) tribal languages

 

Answer: (d) tribal languages

 

Explanation:

 

Some of the popular languages spoken by the tribes of India are as follows: Bhatri, Bhilli, Halbi, Ho, Kui etc. Halabi is spoken by over 5.25 Lakh people in the states of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. It belongs to the group of Indo Aryan Tribal languages. Important Dravidian Tribal languages are Kolami, Kui, Konda, Koya, Gondi, Oraon/Kurukh, Parji. Hence option (d) is correct.

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